Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 01:00
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What is the estimated number of people with an extra X chromosome?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Tuesday Telescope: Lighting, sprites, and airglow over Central America - Ars Technica
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
We’re secretly winning the war on cancer - vox.com
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.